Date: 11/28/2014 5:09:00 PM
From Authorid: 46486
I am confused. With the first bill of sale, did you pay him that amount of money then? If so, why the need for a second bill of sale if it was paid for then. But if it hasn't been paid for then maybe yes? I'm unsure though.  |
Date: 11/28/2014 11:24:00 PM
From Authorid: 998
If I were the one to sell the car, I wouldn't want to defer the date. I might be considered responsible for any accidents, tickets or issues the new owner might have done. I think the seller is foolish. I can't think of why he might want to do this, but hopefully you can get this title free and clear soon. Best of luck to you.  |
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Date: 11/29/2014 8:40:00 AM
From Authorid: 46486
My husband and I were talking about it we both aren't 100% sure but I believe it probably does have to be the same date. But if you haven't paid on it yet to register it already then I suggest you get that title and do a new bill of sale. Last thing you'd need is a "stolen car" that you use to get you to the holidays and the work schedules lol. Good luck on this situation keep USM posted |
Date: 11/29/2014 9:12:00 AM ( From Author )
From Authorid: 61673
I paid for the car in full the date that we made the first bill of sale. I've talked to a few people and everyone had said they're pretty sure there is no need to write a new one. The way i looked at it was if he had the title in the first place, the date on it would have been different from the bill of sale anyway. I let the guy know that it doesn't matter and what i already have is fine, haven't heard back from him yet but I'm hoping he'll just send it to me... soon. Thanks for the input everyone!  |
Date: 12/9/2014 7:57:00 PM
From Authorid: 60395
I believe it can be different. It might be tricky though because I know in illinois you only have 30 days from the bill of sale to license the car.  |
