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Speaking In Tongues

  Author: 54074  Category:(Religious) Created:(5/20/2002 10:24:00 PM)
This post has been Viewed (2994 times)

Why is Speaking In Tongues referred as that? What does it all mean? How can we all be sure that we are doing it correctly as individual when speaking to god.I know that in a group setting there is usually confirmation,but what if you've never done it and it's all new to you?

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Date: 5/20/2002 10:46:00 PM  From Authorid: 49277    supposedly it is when you have gotten the holy spirit and it speaks through you. so you arent supposed to be doing it, it's something you cant control.. so if u have to make yourself then it's faking.  
Date: 5/20/2002 11:05:00 PM  From Authorid: 47699    If I ever heard anyone doing that, I would think they were possessed by a demon! That's some scary stuff! I know what you're probably thinking but that's just the way it seems to me.  
Date: 5/20/2002 11:16:00 PM  From Authorid: 3125    Sorry but I would think that it comes about mainly from a misunderstanding of what the scriptures teach..Speaking in tongues in the N.T. days was for a sign for those who did not believe..Those speaking in tongues were speaking in languages and they were speaking to one another,not to God..The Holy Spirit gave them the gift of speaking in foreign tongues so that the Word of God could be understood by all nations among them..If you would like scriptures,I would gladly give you scriptures for what I say..Also,Those who translated the KJV all spoke in tongues..They knew every language known to mankind..This was a learned way,not a gift given by the Holy Spirit ((hugs))  
Date: 5/20/2002 11:59:00 PM  From Authorid: 50435    Thassit. Even now "speaking in tongues" means to speak in foreign languages. Just some fancy shmancy lingo. But Rusure, the people who translated the KJV did not know every language known to mankind. Not at the time. The main languages these people used, for the purpose of translating from the documents they had were primarily Greek, with some Hebrew and a bit of Aramaic. It was only after Christianity conquered the world that the KJV was translated into various foreign languages. Or is that what you meant? Oh well, never hurts to verify...lol. Take care...Gallytuck.  
Date: 5/21/2002 4:51:00 AM  From Authorid: 10146    I have been told that if you have repented and been baptised in the Name of Jesus, with water, for the remission of body fleshly sin, then Jesus will baptise your Soul/Spirit with the Holy Ghost. This is done when others of the church who have already been baptised in Jesus name, and the Holy Ghost, lay their hands upon you. Jesus causes the Holy Ghost baptising to pass through the members of the church and exstending it on to the next believer. The remission of sin baptising only gives you half a cup of Holy spirit water, for the sake of the flesh body, and the Baptising of the Holy Ghost give you the other half, by filling your cup, when your Soul is Baptised, which causes you to speak in other toungues. that is what I have been told, that it means.  
Date: 5/21/2002 4:58:00 AM  From Authorid: 53623    So much misunderstanding, so little time.... Speaking in tongues takes two forms - glossolia (speaking in a "Heavenly" tongue) and zenoglossolia (Speaking in a foreign language one has not studied or been exposed to). Linguists have studied both, and while they do not understand what is being said in glossolia, they do agree there are language patterns (they attribute it to the conscious mind trying to force itself upon an aggrivated emotional state of consciousness, rather than any "religious" experience.) Zenoglossolia, as far as the studies I have read, has no explanation. (Other than the ones we Christians have. ;^))Peace, Tom
Date: 5/21/2002 10:26:00 PM  From Authorid: 37900    I received this experience more than twenty-five years ago. I would not hesitate to describe it as the single most important event I have ever experienced. Let me know if I can help.  
Date: 5/22/2002 7:40:00 AM  From Authorid: 52262    Mark 16:17 Jesus said that believers in His name "...shall speak with new tongues." 1 Corinthians 14:4 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself.... When you pray in the spirit, which is praying in tongue, it is a direct spirtitual communication with the Father. The Holy Spirit never possesses a man or forces him to speak against his will. The best thing for you to do is study the Word. It will come to you. All I did was study and pray and then I desided I was going to give it a try and started speaking.=====PAVE
Date: 5/22/2002 9:52:00 AM  From Authorid: 16671    NOTICE here that it says, forbid NOT to speak with tounges:1Cor:14:37: If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.
1Cor:14:38: But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.
1Cor:14:39: Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues.
1Cor:14:40: Let all things be done decently and in order.
OUR father will give the Holy Spirit with the evidence of speaking in Tounges to anyone that is a believer that asks. Yes at first it was handed down with the laying on of hands, but then the Scriputre says, let them that be ignornant be ingnorant still, as the FAther clearly tells us that we ONLY need to ask. There is no right or wrong way, let the HOly Spirit of God lead you.
  
Date: 5/24/2002 9:17:00 PM  From Authorid: 53850    when christ sent the Apostles
out to the worlds to preach the gospel ,about death burial and resurection
of Jesus Christ.<< this promise speaking in tongues in Acts ,1,2 and Acts.1,8
was the tongues of foreign languages ,so they can preach to the foreign <
people, out side of the worlds, those who can't speak,>>>Galilaeans?
Remember THE Apostles were born In --->>>Galilaeans? the people
from foreign nation, was not a Galilaeans? ACTS,2;7-11 AND HERE ARE THE NATION THAT WAS THERE,>>># 1Parthians,
# 2Medes,
# 3Elamites,
# 4dwellers
# 5Mesopotamia,
# 6 Judaea,
# 7Cappadocia,
# 8Pontus,
# 9 Asia,
# 10Phrygia,
# 11Pamphylia
# 12Egypt,
# 13Libya
# 14Cyrene,
# 15strangers of Rome,
# 16Jews
15strangers of Rome,
# 16Jews
# 17proselytes
# 18Cretes and Arabians
They were given the ability to perform miracles to confirm their teachings came directly from God, (Hebrews 2:3,4). Today, however, we have God's written word, the Bible and thus no longer have apostles, prophets or miracles, which passed away in the first century, (1 Corinthians 13-10).
Dean
  
Date: 5/25/2002 12:57:00 AM  From Authorid: 3125    In the O.T. in every case,any references found regarding different languages is speaking of different dialects..Now,in Mark 16:17 it says "And these signs shall follow them that believe. In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues. In Acts 2:4,this is being fulfilled,"And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.Now when this was noised abroad,the multitude came together,and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak IN HIS OWN LANGUAGE. v 7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? v 8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born? v 9 Parthians,and Medes,and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia,and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,v 10 Phrygia,and Pamphylia,in Egypt,and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene,and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes, v 11 Cretes and Arabians,we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God....We can clearly see that speaking in tongues here clearly meant they were speaking in the dialect of other nations..In Acts 19:6 Paul laid his hands upon them and they spake in tongues.."And when Paul had laid his hands upon them,the Holy Ghost came on them;and they spake with tongues,and prophesied."..Nothing had changed here..Speaking in tongues clearly show that it is speaking in different dialects. Paul is here laying hands on them for the purpose of departing the gift of speaking in tongues.. Now..At what point did things changed?..Where are the scriptures showing that the same tongues Paul refers to in 1 Cor 13,etc are different than what they were in Acts 2 and in Acts 19? When did they become gibberish rather than speaking in an unknown dialect(language?..At that time,no one was to forbid them from speaking in unknown languages,but prophecies were preferred because as Paul said..in 1 Cor 14: 19 Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding,that by my voice I might teach others also,than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue...First,notice that they there was to be an interpreter or one was to keep quiet..Next..If no one was there to interpret an unknown language,then what was the purpose of speaking?..No one but God could understand him,therefore all he was doing was speaking to God and edifying himself..He edified himself in that he knew he could speak miraculously in a foreign language and he felt close to God because of this,therefore he edified himself..He wasn't edifying anyone else..My main question is this..When did languages in the O.T and in Acts change to mean "speaking to God in a gibberish way?"..God understands the heart and every thoughts before it is even spoken..Why a language which no one but God can understand? If anyone believes that it is an unknown tongue made so that the devil cannot understand,then please show me the scriptures for this teaching..  
Date: 5/26/2002 5:34:00 PM  From Authorid: 46266    Amen, Rusure. So much is added, and so much is taken away, but when the scripture is just taken as-is, it all makes sense. Speaking in tongues, when it comes from God, is speaking in a foreign dialect. Speaking in tougues, when it comes from fallen spirits contacted through a state of ecstacy, is gibberish. Sorry, but I would rather step on a thousand toes than pick my way so carefully around people's feelings that I end up stepping on Jesus' toes instead.  
Date: 5/30/2002 9:24:00 PM  From Authorid: 27678    Rusure, that's the best explanation I have ever read. I'm not sure what the purpose is for this today, as my understanding was that this took place for that time, at the Pentecost. The only thing I can see is that it is considered EVIDENCE of the Holy Spirit today. How sad! I see the evidence of God EVERYWHERE, and I don't have to see someone speaking in tongues, people being healed, or any other sort of "signs" to know that God is real. A blade of grass growing, fish swimming, babies crying. Those are ALL EVIDENCE of the Holy Spirit, cause the Holy Spirit is LIFE!  
Date: 5/31/2002 4:09:00 PM  From Authorid: 53850    THE A P O S T L E S They were given the ability to perform miracles to confirm their teachings came directly from God, (Hebrews 2:3,4). Today, however, we have God's written word, the Bible and thus no longer have apostles, prophets or miracles, which passed away in the first century, (1 Corinthians 13-10).HERE what the bible say.it up to you if you Don't want to believe what it say,
1;Cor;13;8 say---> 8 ¶ Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. {fail: vanish away} TODAYpeople get mad
when they see this verse and scripture<< they say tongues is still going on today<< but it NOT i give them the scripture, and NOW they say it false<<<

  
Date: 6/13/2002 8:23:00 AM  From Authorid: 39949    argue with acts2:1-4,luke 24:49,mark 16:15-18,mark15:34,john 20:19-23,isaih 6:1,jer 20,1 cor. 2:6,2cor. 12,acts 10:44,isaih 59:19,zec 4:5,romans 8:1,god bless><esp911><  

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