This is PROOF that 2 does indeed equal 1. Who can find the loophole in this equation?
First off, let's say "x" and "y" are of equal values. Thus:
x = y
Now, we can multiply both sides by "x."
x^2 = xy
Let's subtract y^2 on both sides. This is still valid, right?
x^2 - y^2 = xy - y^2
Then we can factor each side.
(x - y)(x + y) = y(x - y)
We then simply divide by (x - y) on both sides.
x + y = y
Since x = y, let's go ahead and substitute x into y.
x + x = x
Simplify...
2x = x
And substitute 1 into x.
2(1) = 1
Simplify some more, and we find that 2 equals 1.
2 = 1
Now, who can find the error in this logic? Come on, USM math geeks. Prove me wrong.
-Krista
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